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1 of 40

The Relationship processes describe the relationships with the business and with the suppliers. What should the Relationship processes ensure?

A. that all parties understand the business needs, responsibilities and obligations

B. that the business and suppliers are directly informed of Major Incidents

C. that the service levels for all services are consistent in the supply chain

D. that there is a frequent contact between the suppliers and the business to resolve dissatisfaction issues

2 of 40

Why are processes required?

A. to be able to define quality objectives in a structured manner

B. to ensure that service issues never arise

C. to provide consistency in the output from activities

D. to satisfy the needs of major outsource providers

3 of 40

What is a benefit to an organization when the services are delivered according to ISO/IEC 20000?

A. The environmental needs of the employees in the organization are well looked after.

B. The organization becomes more process focused and thereby more efficient.

C. The organization behaves in a socially responsible way.

D. The organization has less suppliers to deal with.

4 of 40

The Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) methodology can be applied to all ISO/IEC 20000 processes. What does the Act phase of this methodology cover?

A. establishing the objectives and processes necessary to deliver results in accordance with Customer requirements and the organization's policies

B. implementation of the processes

C. monitoring and measuring processes and services and reporting the results

D. taking the necessary actions to continually improve process performance

5 of 40

An approach to developing and implementing a Quality Management System consists of several steps. Which of the following is not a necessary step?

A. agreeing to the quality policy and objectives with the Change Manager

B. determining and providing the resources necessary to attain the quality objectives

C. determining the needs and expectations of Customers and other interested parties

D. establishing methods to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of each process

6 of 40

What is the primary purpose of analyzing Change records?

A. to be able to open a new Problem record, so proactive identification of Incidents is possible

B. to check if related Incident records are adequately closed

C. to detect increasing levels of Changes and emerging trends

D. to provide input to the Service Reporting process

7 of 40

Personnel should be competent on the basis of appropriate education and experience. Which of the following is a best practice relating to competence?

A. Appropriate records of education, training, skills and experience need to be maintained.

B. At least two employees should be suitably trained for each role.

C. Employees should have at least a relevant bachelors degree.

D. Personnel should all have a relevant Security training according to ISO/IEC 27002.

8 of 40

Which standard describes the fundamental aspects of Quality Management Systems?

A. ISO 9000

B. ISO/IEC 15504

C. ISO/IEC 20000

D. ISO/IEC 27001

9 of 40

What is the objective of the Service Continuity and Availability Management processes?

A. to ensure agreed effective communication towards Customers

B. to ensure that agreed levels of service commitments to Customers can be met in all circumstances

C. to ensure that agreed Service Continuity and Availability commitments to Customers can be met in all circumstances

D. to ensure that agreed Service Continuity and Availability commitments to providers can be met in all circumstances

10 of 40

A group of activities within Release Management is roll-out, distribution and installation. What should be ensured as part of these activities?

A. Changes are scheduled based upon priority and risk.

B. Contingency and back-out plans are available.

C. Redundant products, services and licenses are decommissioned.

D. The Release is tested to the satisfaction of the Customers.

11 of 40

Top management has to provide evidence of its commitment to developing, implementing and improving its Service Management capability within the context of the organization's business and Customers' requirements.

What is the best way that management can make this visible?

A. by outsourcing Change Management

B. by taking disciplinary action against underperforming employees

C. by taking part in the planning of new IT services

D. through leadership and actions

12 of 40

Which of the following is used as a set of guidance materials for IT governance?


B. ISO 9000

C. ISO/IEC 20000


13 of 40

What is the objective of IT Service Management?

A. to provide critical services to business customers

B. to provide guaranteed service levels against business requirements

C. to provide management of services to meet business requirements

D. to provide services to the maximum level to the business

14 of 40

To which process shall Problem Management ensure that up-to-date information on Known Errors and corrected Problems is available?

A. all ISO/IEC 20000 processes

B. Availability Management

C. Configuration Management

D. Incident Management

15 of 40

Which type of event or activity can trigger a service Change, which would need to be catered for in the Service Management plan?

A. Major Incident

B. Service improvement activities

C. System Lifecycle Management

D. Urgent Change

16 of 40

Why is it important that reviews are conducted at regular intervals during the Check phase of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) methodology?

A. to be able to allocate roles and responsibilities

B. to be able to define the objectives and requirements that are to be achieved by Service Management

C. to be able to establish the Service Management policy, objectives and plans

D. to determine whether the Service Management requirements are effectively implemented and maintained

17 of 40

What is the certification audit primarily based on?

A. personnel records

B. process descriptions

C. reports by certified financial auditors

D. specifications

18 of 40

What is the correct way to make a change to a contract as a result of a major review of an authorized contract?

A. through the Business Relationship Management process

B. through the Change Management process

C. through the Customer representative

D. through the Supplier Management process

19 of 40

Targets for resolution should be based on priority. When scheduling Incident or Problem resolution, which of the following should not be taken into account?

A. the available skills

B. the competing requirements for resources

C. the effort/cost to provide the method of resolution

D. the number of previously reported Incidents for the particular Configuration Item (CI)

20 of 40

What is a responsibility of the Service Provider with regard to Supplier Management as defined in ISO/IEC 20000–1:2005?

A. to ensure that a process exists for the procurement of suppliers

B. to ensure that Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with suppliers are aligned with SLAs of the business

C. to ensure that subcontracted suppliers meet contractual requirements in all circumstances

D. to ensure that supplier processes and procedures are defined where outsourced

21 of 40

What details should be recorded as a baseline prior to implementing a plan for service improvement?

A. backlog of changes for the service

B. number of staff involved

C. service quality and levels

D. time taken to operate the process

22 of 40

What is SixSigma®?

A. It is a quality instrument to measure defects in process outputs.

B. It is a six step maturity model to improve the capability of business processes.

C. It is a standard that is recently developed for improvement of IT processes.

D. It is a structured, statistically based approach to process improvement.

23 of 40

How should the Deming cycle be used?

A. as a model for continual improvement

B. as a model for customer orientation

C. as a model to be used during the design phase of the service

D. as a model to calculate the costs of service improvement

24 of 40

What is the definition of Availability?

A. a record containing details of which Configuration Items (CIs) are affected and how they are affected by an authorized Change

B. a snapshot of the state of a service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time

C. any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes or may cause an interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of that service

D. the ability of a component or service to perform its required function at a stated instant or over a stated period of time

25 of 40

New or changed services need to be accepted before being implemented into the live environment. What shall be done after a new or changed service has been implemented?

A. A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is held comparing actual outcomes against those planned.

B. An approach needs to be defined for interfacing to projects that are creating or modifying services.

C. Nothing additional: the new or changed service goes into Business As Usual and will be managed as a normal service.

D. The manner in which the Change shall be reversed or remedied if unsuccessful needs to be defined.

26 of 40

What is the recommendation with regard to the implementation of an emergency Change?

A. Only the senior manager should authorize emergency Changes.

B. The Change process should be completely bypassed.

C. There is a separate process for emergency Changes.

D. Where possible the Change process should be followed.

27 of 40

For which type of organizations is ISO/IEC 20000 appropriate for use?

A. for organizations to confirm that all of the ITIL guidelines have been implemented

B. for organizations which need to demonstrate alignment to customer requirements

C. for organizations wishing to certify their services

D. for tool vendors to specify the Service Provider's processes

28 of 40

Any organization may be impacted by legislative or regulatory change in the future. Where should this be covered?

A. in a Change request

B. in the Business Relationship Management process

C. in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. in the Service Management plan

29 of 40

What level of Capacity is targeted by Capacity Management?

A. sufficient Capacity to meet agreed current and future demands

B. sufficient Capacity to meet all current and future demands

C. sufficient Capacity to meet all development and operational requirements

D. sufficient Capacity to meet current demands only

30 of 40

What does a quality policy aim to define?

A. the formally expressed quality intentions and direction of an organization

B. the legal obligations that the organization must fulfill

C. the requirements of ISO/IEC 20000

D. the requirements of the customer as stated in the Service Level Agreement (SLA)

31 of 40

Which audit is conducted by, or on behalf of, the organization itself for internal purposes and can form the basis for an organization's self-declaration of conformity?

A. First party audit

B. Second party audit

C. Third party audit

D. Fourth party audit

32 of 40

In planning to implement Service Management, what does the plan need to say regarding tools according to ISO/IEC 20000–2:2005?

A. The plan defines the tools as appropriate to support the processes.

B. The plan details the effects of new technologies and techniques on capacity.

C. The plan does not state any tools requirements.

D. The plan lists how every individual process is supported by a tool.

33 of 40

Why is a scope statement for ISO/IEC 20000 important?

A. It defines what the management system has been certified against

B. It details all of the companies that have been certified

C. It details all of the services that have been certified

D. It identifies which processes have been excluded from the scope

34 of 40

Where would an IT service for the customer normally be defined?

A. in the IT Framework

B. in the Operational Level Agreement (OLA)

C. in the Service Catalog or the Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D. in the Service Report

35 of 40

What is required to be included in Release Management procedures according to ISO/IEC 20000?

A. the authorization and implementation of emergency Changes

B. the investigation and prevention of Security Incidents

C. the recording of all reported Incidents

D. the updating and changing o f configuration information and Change records

36 of 40

What should planning for new or changed services include?

A. budgets and staff resources

B. major non-conformities to all Underpinning Contracts (UCs)

C. recent Problems and Known Errors in the desktop environment

D. trends in Capacity growth of the current applications

37 of 40

What is required to be included in proposals for new or changed services according to ISO/IEC 20000?

A. an updated Operational Level Agreement

B. cost, organizational, technical and commercial impact

C. the policies, plans and procedures of each process or set of processes

D. the Service Management plan

38 of 40

What purpose can the ISO/IEC 20000 standard serve?

A. It defines specific Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) upon which service performance can be assessed.

B. It defines the requirements to be satisfied in a certification audit.

C. It helps to decide on the requirements that need to be verified within the scope of a supply agreement.

D. It provides a yardstick for the design of a Total Quality Management System.

39 of 40

Why is it important for Service Providers to provide documents and records?

A. It is part of the requirements (evidence) to become ISO/IEC 20000 compliant

B. to be able to uniquely identify and record all Configuration Items (CIs) in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)

C. to ensure effective planning, operation and control of Service Management

D. to ensure employees are aware of the relevance and importance of their work activities

40 of 40

Who should be recommended to support the Senior Responsible Owner in his/her responsibility for the delivery of the management system?

A. a decision taking group

B. the Change Advisory Board (CAB)

C. the senior customer representative

D. the service managers